Monday, July 31, 2017

Passtcert IBM C5050-300 certification test pdf

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Share some IBM Certified Solution Advisor C5050-300 exam questions and answers below.
Which statement describes a security consideration introduced by adopting DevOps principles? 
A. Adopting DevOps creates an environment that is inherently more secure because developers use cloud native development tools for their development. 
B. It is the most efficient way to test the security of the application in production since pre-production environments will lack the necessary components to accurately validate the security posture. 
C. Adoption of DevOps practices introduces complications for implementing and auditing standardized security controls,presenting issues such as constantly changing assets and continuous deployment. 
D. By design, DevOps combines the role of developer and operator of an application removing the need for separation of duties which reduces the level of risk introduced in theenvironment. 
Answer: C

Which volume of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) should be an integral part of every stage of the ITIL service management framework? 
A. ITILService Design 
B. ITIL Service Operations 
C. ITIL Continual Service Improvement 
D. ITIL Service Strategy 
Answer: C

A developer works in a cloud environment with IBM Bluemix and needs to deploy new versions of code to production without any downtime in their application access. Which IBM offering would provide the required functionality? 
A. IBM Cloud Orchestrator 
B. IBM Active Deploy 
C. IBMBluemix DevOps Services 
D. IBM DevOps Insights 
Answer: B

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Share some IBM Certified Solution Advisor C5050-300 exam questions and answers below.
Which statement describes a security consideration introduced by adopting DevOps principles? 
A. Adopting DevOps creates an environment that is inherently more secure because developers use cloud native development tools for their development. 
B. It is the most efficient way to test the security of the application in production since pre-production environments will lack the necessary components to accurately validate the security posture. 
C. Adoption of DevOps practices introduces complications for implementing and auditing standardized security controls,presenting issues such as constantly changing assets and continuous deployment. 
D. By design, DevOps combines the role of developer and operator of an application removing the need for separation of duties which reduces the level of risk introduced in theenvironment. 
Answer: C

Which volume of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) should be an integral part of every stage of the ITIL service management framework? 
A. ITILService Design 
B. ITIL Service Operations 
C. ITIL Continual Service Improvement 
D. ITIL Service Strategy 
Answer: C

A developer works in a cloud environment with IBM Bluemix and needs to deploy new versions of code to production without any downtime in their application access. Which IBM offering would provide the required functionality? 
A. IBM Cloud Orchestrator 
B. IBM Active Deploy 
C. IBMBluemix DevOps Services 
D. IBM DevOps Insights 
Answer: B

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Share some IBM Certified Solution Advisor C5050-300 exam questions and answers below.
Which statement describes a security consideration introduced by adopting DevOps principles? 
A. Adopting DevOps creates an environment that is inherently more secure because developers use cloud native development tools for their development. 
B. It is the most efficient way to test the security of the application in production since pre-production environments will lack the necessary components to accurately validate the security posture. 
C. Adoption of DevOps practices introduces complications for implementing and auditing standardized security controls,presenting issues such as constantly changing assets and continuous deployment. 
D. By design, DevOps combines the role of developer and operator of an application removing the need for separation of duties which reduces the level of risk introduced in theenvironment. 
Answer: C

Which volume of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) should be an integral part of every stage of the ITIL service management framework? 
A. ITILService Design 
B. ITIL Service Operations 
C. ITIL Continual Service Improvement 
D. ITIL Service Strategy 
Answer: C

A developer works in a cloud environment with IBM Bluemix and needs to deploy new versions of code to production without any downtime in their application access. Which IBM offering would provide the required functionality? 
A. IBM Cloud Orchestrator 
B. IBM Active Deploy 
C. IBMBluemix DevOps Services 
D. IBM DevOps Insights 
Answer: B

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Share some CHFI 312-49v9 exam questions and answers below.
In which step of the computer forensics investigation methodology would you run MD5 checksum on the evidence? 
A. Obtain search warrant 
B. Evaluate and secure the scene 
C. Collect the evidence 
D. Acquire the data 
Answer: D

Network forensics allows Investigators to inspect network traffic and logs to identify and locate the attack system Network forensics can reveal: (Select three answers) 
A. Source of security incidents’ and network attacks 
B. Path of the attack 
C. Intrusion techniques used by attackers 
D. Hardware configuration of the attacker's system 
Answer: A, B, C

Windows Security Accounts Manager (SAM) is a registry file which stores passwords in a hashed format.SAM file in Windows is located at: 
A. C:windowssystem32configSAM 
B. C:windowssystem32conSAM 
C. C:windowssystem32BootSAM 
D. C:windowssystem32driversSAM 
Answer: A

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Sunday, July 30, 2017

Passtcert CompTIA Linux+ LX0-104 exam answers

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Share some Linux+ LX0-104 exam questions and answers below.
Which Bash option prevents a user from accidentally overwriting a file with a ">"? 
A. set -o safe 
B. set -o noglob 
C. set -o noclobber 
D. set -o append 
E. set -o nooverwrite 
Answer: C

Which of the following commands prints the exit value of the most recently executed program in Bash? 
A. echo $? 
B. echo $# 
C. echo $exit 
D. echo $status 
E. echo $& 
Answer: A

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Share some Oracle Communications 1Z0-493 exam questions and answers below.
Identify the outcome when an upstream system creates an order and some transformation errors are generated in the recognition rule. 
A. OSM accepts the order and immediately transitions it to the Failed state. 
B. OSM rejects the order back to the external system with an error message indicating the discrepancies. 
C. OSM queues the order in the web service queue until an administrator resolves it. 
D. OSM accepts the order and transitions it to the Not Started state. 
E. OSM accepts the order and transitions it to the In Progress state. 
Answer: E

Why would you create a new composite cartridge? 
A. to assemble a solution in OSM from a complete collection of all composite cartridges 
B. to create multiple solutions in OSM for all composite cartridges 
C. to assemble a single solution in OSM from a collection of component cartridges 
D. to create a solution that always includes all the component cartridges present in the workspace 
E. Because the composite cartridge feature is not included in OSM. It includes only compound or classic cartridges. 
Answer: C

Identify three functions of the OSM Task Web client. 
A. It enables order processing personnel to monitor and manage tasks within an order and to ensure that all associated tasks are completed. 
B. It enables order fallout managers to diagnose and manage the order fallouts associated with an order. 
C. It enables users to associate roles or workgroups with task and manually complete the activities associated with those tasks. 
D. It enables users to monitor email notifications and handle them through acknowledgement, escalation, and forwarding to other users. 
E. It enables users to suspend and resume orders, cancel orders, and create orders manually. 
Answer: A,B,E 

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Friday, July 28, 2017

Oracle Human Capital Management Cloud 1Z0-443 exam bootcamp Passtcert

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Share some Software as a Service - Oracle Human Capital Management Cloud 1Z0-443 exam questions and answers below.
Which three statements are true about Instructor Led Training Events/Tracks/Sessions? 
A. They can also help to organize VILT and Online Classes and Courses. 
B. They let administrators add an entire structure of ILT training to a Job Profile. 
C. They help clients to organize Instructor-Led Training based on two levels of client criteria. 
D. They permit users to select from multiple session dates when an Event or Track is added to a Learning Plan. 
E. They make it easier for administrators to find specific training in the Instructor Led Training menu in the Control Panel. 
Answer: A,B,D

An organization wants to group all their new hires so they can push out a new-hire learning plan. What would the Dynamic Criteria settings look like when configuring the Dynamic Group? 
A. Item Type = Users; Field Name = New Hire; Operator = Equal To; Value = Yes 
B. Item Type = Users; Field Name = New Hire; Operator = Less Than; Value = 90 days 
C. Item Type = Job Profiles; Field Name = Job Profile Name; Operator = Equal To; Value = New Hire 
D. Item Type = Learning Plans; Field Name = Learning Plan Name; Operator = Equal To; Value = New Hire Plan 
Answer: C

You are the system administrator of your LearnCenter and are getting responses from supervisors that they are only able to assign users to existing enrollments and are unable to set up their own enrollments. You have checked all of the supervisor account permissions and all permissions for Manage Enrollments are selected. Which two statements are true about this issue? 
A. The supervisor account permissions do not include permissions to create enrollments. 
B. The supervisors must be mapped to a specific group to be able to access additional permissions. 
C. Supervisors must be mapped to a separate user role for additional permissions. 
D. Supervisors require system administrator permissions to be able to create enrollments. 
Answer: B,D

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Share some MCSE 70-473 exam questions and answers below.
You are planning the consolidation of the databases from Host1. You need to identify which methods to use to back up the data after the consolidation completes. What are two possible methods that achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. 
A. BACKUP TO URL 
B. Always On failover clustering 
C. a maintenance plan 
D. Always On Availability Groups 
Answer: C

You are planning the consolidation of the databases from Host1. You need to identify which methods to use to back up the data after the consolidation completes. What are two possible methods that achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. 
A. BACKUP TO URL 
B. Always On failover clustering 
C. a maintenance plan 
D. Always On Availability Groups 
Answer: AC

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Thursday, July 27, 2017

Passtcert Oracle 1Z0-416 study guides pdf

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Share some PeopleSoft 1Z0-416 exam questions and answers below.
Which default value do the Job Code table and Location table have in common? 
A. Salary Plan 
B. Work Period 
C. Tax Location 
D. Standard Hours 
E. Establishment ID 
Answer: A

Which three statements describe the benefits of using tableset sharing in the PeopleSoft system? (Choose three.) 
A. Tableset sharing uses SetID to restrict or grant access to data within a table. 
B. Tableset sharing allows organizations to track and report business information. 
C. Tableset sharing enables organizations to group rows of data within a control table by using a high-level key called a SetID. 
D. Tableset sharing uses Department ID in conjunction with department security tree to restrict or grant access to data within a table. 
E. Tableset sharing enables organizations to utilize indexing capabilities on mapped records for faster search results on employee data. 
F. Tableset sharing enables organizations to share information instead of entering it multiple times, when large portions of data are the same for various business units. 
Answer: A, C, F

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Wednesday, July 26, 2017

Passtcert NSCA Certification CSCS training material

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Share some NSCA Certitication CSCS exam questions and answers below.
What is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the myofibril, causing tension development in a muscle? 
A. Calcium ions that bind to troponin 
B. Calcium ions that bind to tropomyosin 
C. Sodium ions that bind to troponin 
D. Sodium ions that bind to tropomyosin 
Answer: A

A muscle fiber that is small in diameter has a slow contraction speed, and a high capillary density would be classified as? 
A. Type I 
B. Type IIa 
C. Type IIb 
D. Type IIc 
Answer: A

Each muscle fiber is surrounded by a connective tissue called? 
A. Fasiciculi 
B. Perimysium 
C. Endomysium 
D. Epimysium 
Answer: C

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